I had a terrible headache(with NO previous symptoms AT ALL) just 50 days ago and suffered from this terrible headache for 5 days when I took a C.T. Scan picture which showd a blood clot in my brain, so the sudden terrible hedache was because I had had bleeding. After going to a hospital and taking some pills, after 4 days this headache was gone and I was ok with no pain. I stayed 15 days at that hospital, and was sent to a better hospital in Tehran(capital city of Iran) where I undergone an angiography test which showed no sign of AVM at first. But after veiwing tha pictures taken from my vessels my doctors said they had found my source of bleeding which was one malformed vessel. Then I had an surgury in which the clot was removed from my brain and the malformed vessel was blocked. Fortunately I was free from the possible dangers(permenant body disability and other problems) both in bleeding and after operation. Doctors called my problem as AVM, now my question is can ONLY ONE malformed vessel be called AVM since AVM is introduced as a number of malformed vessels. Any ideas?
Sorry Ive no idea if 1 counts as an avm but as you doctor has given you this info then surely it must be right.
By the way well done in making a great recovery, I just had an angiogram on Mpn and feel awful very sore as if i’ve been punched and kicked about the hospital wards